Does "no lo vendgas" make any sense?

I don't think it does, but I'm not sure why? So far, I understand that to turn something into a negative you add "no" + a "gas" onto the end of the verb.

However, I think I'm getting confused somewhere? I know the correct way is "no lo vendas" but could someone please explain why my thinking is wrong? Thanks.

submitted by /u/garym81
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