INDIRECT OBJECT – Why does le remain in the sentence despite the presence of the object later on in the sentence. Surely it´s redundant?

Hey team

Can someone please explain again under what circumstances does one keep the INDIRECT OBJECT PRONOUN at the beginning of the sentence despite the fact that the OBJECT is present later on in the sentence?

E.g. No le tengo miedo a la melancolía

E.g. No le quiero a mi hermano

P.S. A source of information to read over this topic would be much appreciated also. Thank you.

submitted by /u/Pedro_pikaPiedra
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