Still confused by gustar

I'm pretty sure I can use the verb gustar correctly. But when I think more deeply about it I'm still confused.

In a sentence like "A Juan le gustan los gatos" I've read that the cats are the subject and Juan is the indirect object. So far this makes sense if we directly translate the sentence to "The cats are pleasing to Juan" or something similar. The cats are the subject and it answers the question "To whom are the cats pleasing?", so Juan is the indirect object.

What I'm confused by is why the subject is put at the end of the sentence like this. I think the sentence "los gatos le gustan a Juan" is grammatical, but I never read sentences written this way. On the other hand, I never see sentences like "A Juan le escriben los gatos".

Is it just a convention to put the subject at the end for verbs like gustar and interesar, or am I missing something?

submitted by /u/Karl_Zagan
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